Okay, so I'm in a battle where I'm considering attacking a guy who has a Revered Elder. But the specialist card states that no other specialists participate unless both sides have a Revered Elder.

So my question is, if Player A attacks Player B with a Revered Elder on hand, does Player B's Revered Elder have to participate in combat to counter the effects of Player A's Revered Elder?

Because if not, then I feel like the word "have" is a bit ambiguous in this context, and using the word "own" would actually be more clear to players. As in:

*No other specialists participate in combat, unless both sides own a Revered Elder.*

I don't want to nitpick or anything, I just want to make sure I understand the rules correctly, and want to find a way to prevent future players from asking the same question.

I interpreted it as "unless both players have a Revered Elder (in battle)."

It's "have" instead of "own" to imply that the elder(s) has to be in that battle, not just on the field.